Had a follow-up appointment with my orthopedic surgeon today. She told me I had a possible medial meniscus tear that was "too close" to call on the MRI from the perspective of the Radiologist. Before leaving the office I asked for a copy of the report. As expected, it did not mention any medial meniscus tear. I have to believe her for that, _but_ it said two other things that were more haunting and that the doc. did not talk to me about.
First is that there is a mild edema in the popliteal fat and posterior subcutaenous tissues. Second is that the posterior crcuciate ligament is slightly tickened, with abnormal intrasubstance signal intensive. Later it says that the signal is consistent with a intersitial tear. What does those mean?
Seeing how I can't trust my doctor with actually sitting down and discussing this, what is your opinion? Perhaps I didn't make it clear enough that having pain-free knees means more than the world for me?
Doc suggested 6 weeks of physio, a repeat visit, and possible investigative arthroscopy afterwards. My knee pain has been around for nearly two years and I have done 4 times that amount of P/T. My running is nearly non-existant (15 mi/wk), not because I can't run, but because I don't like to run when it doesn't feel natural.
Reading up the PCL injury, there is a chance that 2.5 years ago I did injury that knee via direct blow. I banged my knee into concrete. I was off running for 1-2 weeks, but I don't think it was that bad, though it very well could be. My knee has not felt right in a really long time.