The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed; a well armed and well regulated militia being the best security of a free country: but no person religiously scrupulous of bearing arms shall be compelled to render military service in person.
Obviously this amendment needs to be rewritten as it no longer is applicable to conditions today.
These questions the guns advocates can not and will not answer.
(1) Why did the founding fathers include the language, "a well armed and WELL REGULATED militia ......." Its because the government might need to call these armed civilians to fight for the country in military service. If you don't believe that, then explain the following sentence:
(2) that if a person due to religious reasons can't "bear arms" then he wouldn't be forced to be in the military.
(3) Why didn't the founding father just include the first clause (right to bear arms) and not include the rest of the amendment. Why were the last two sentences included?
Also what state constitutions say about this is irellevant.