I believe this makes sense but am looking for input anyway. Here's the basics on my finances: I have a 401(k) with only a little bit of money in it (less than $10,000) since I only worked for a company that offered a 401(k) for about a year. Since then I have done a variety of contract jobs and have simply maxed out my Roth IRA (which I've had longer than my 401k) each year. My Roth IRA has done very well and has outperformed my 401k. My Roth IRA is through Vanguard, and the 401k is through another entity.
Anyway, I have not yet contributed to my Roth for the 2016 year at all and was planning on doing it all in one lump sum. However, I had some big expenses this winter and would be a bit more comfortable if I could somehow hold on to a little extra money. Also, the market is very high right now and likely inflated, and I expect it to drop significantly in the next 6-12 months. My solution to all this is to "borrow" money from my 401k by doing a partial rollover into my Roth IRA. I will have plenty of money to replace this "borrowed" amount later this year and can put that money back into my 401k. So basically I would just be transferring money from my 401k into my Roth IRA so as to meet my yearly maximum contribution of $5500.
Can anyone see a hole in my plan or reason why this doesn't make sense? Thanks.