“If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as male servants do: - Exodus 21:7
Well, we know there ARE males and females, and there ARE Jew and Greek .. and this text isn't denying those realities, is it. It's clearly no more saying the institution of slavery is abhorrent and should be abandoned than it says gender is abhorrent.
They certainly aren't critical of it. Particularly in the greater context of laying out the rules for how viciously you're allowed to beat your slaves.
"If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished, but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up after a day or two, since the slave is his property."
It sure SOUNDS like force is part of this equation, doesn't it.
But you're also pretending that this kind of thing was took place in a perfect world. And even a cursory look at that part of the world shows it's far from that (as is everywhere). What do you suppose the conditions were for people who suddenly became so indebted to another man that they sold themselves and their families to 6 or more year of slavery? Do you think it was based on a sound justice system? You think it was just 2 people of equal footing and one suddenly owed the other one 6-7 years of his and his family's life because .. because .. what? What on earth was going on in their economy 3000 years ago that a man might owe another man up to 1/3 of his life?
I'd suggest, at best, it was no different to the justice system that sent children and teenagers half way around the world because someone decided they'd taken a slice of bread too many.
And then, you polish it up and call it indentureship or debt. It's nonsense.
I tell you what ... the next time "any Israelites living near you become SO POOR that THEY SELL THEMSELVES to you as a slave," you call me, OK? I wanna see this.
And, more to the point, if that was perfectly OK then, where in the bible does it say that's not OK now?
"As for your male and female slaves whom you may have: you may buy male and female slaves from among the nations that are around you."
Why would people in other nations be initiating indentured slavery of themselves to Hebrews?
You buy them from other nations. The text you quoted is a very different thing .. and you already know this .. referring only to Hebrew slaves. In short, you can't buy Hebrew slaves, they must sell themselves to you .. but from your neighbors, have at it.
Leviticus explicitly commands it's OK to buy and sell people. Even to inherit them. Non-israelite slaves were forever, they were inheritable property.
Leviticus also spells out the value of a slave .. 30 shekels.
Deuteronomy makes it perfectly clear that it's quite OK to make slaves of captives in war.
They make it quite clear it's perfectly OK to sell your daughter into sexual slavery and what the rules are if she doesn't please her new master.
You're deliberately ignoring the difference between how your bible instructs people to treat their neighbors. Not to mention, ignoring the ridiculousness of people selling themselves as slaves (don't call them servants .. do you REALLY think these people, who were allowed to be beaten within a day or 2 of their lives, were treated as "servants"? Bring me my tea and vacuum the floor. WTF? That's akin to calling gladiators the equivalent of pro football players. It's absolutely ridiculous.
Oh look, you did it again.
There's definitely a pattern here.
Essentially, all you've done is point out that your bible says it's not OK to buy and sell your own people (other than your daughter, of course), but it's perfectly OK to buy and sell people of neighboring nations; kinda like saying white people could buy and sell black people, but not other white people. Mexicans would be the modern day equivalent, I suppose.
Bears are sleeping, bro.
But I'm sure you knew that. Right?