The article is actually making a very good point. Most men who want to be women are not great athletes. I know there are exceptions. But most are not.
Uh...ok.
That's great logic! So, how do you determine who's athletically challenged and won't or can't be competitive? I believe one of the trans athletes stated after qualifying for the Cal state meet said he/she ran a 17 second personal best and was "totally surprised". Also, one of the arguments the pro-trans athlete supporters claim is "Trans athlete kids are not interested in seriously competing, they just want to hang out with people they're comfortable with. It's not about competing, its about being inclusive and they pose no challenge to the competitors". As we've all seen, that is not true.
Richards transitioned in her thirties. She has said if she had done so in her early twenties no female competitor would have stood a chance against her.
It is bizarre that you refer to a man with feminine pronouns while arguing that men should be disallowed from competing in female-only divisions. I agree with disallowing men from competing as women: it's your cross-wired use of pronouns that is bizarre.
I once referred to a MTF transperson as him. And my post got deleted.
So we are forced to use "him" when referring to a biological male who has transitioned to female.
Since transwomen and biological women have no difference in athletic ability, can someone explain how Lia Thomas went from the 462nd ranked male to the 1st ranked female in one season? That's a pretty amazing improvement, I wonder what she did to improve by that much?!
Hormone parameters not strict enough. Lower T levels and a longer time period are required to mitigate the effect of male puberty. (And imo--and perhaps not a popular one-- adult trans women athletes should have undergone sexual reassignment surgery.)
That makes zero sense. Reassignment surgery is cosmetic as far as athletic performance is concerned. The mental well being and bodily autonomy of the trans individual are the only relevant concerns for surgery.
Actually, the burden of proof should be on the men (transwomen) who claim they are similar enough to women that they should be allowed in women's sports.
They are women, not men, for any purpose that matters (your personal opinion not being one of them), and they are not claiming “they are similar enough to women”, rather they and everyone else understands that trans women are different from cis women.
Women? In what way? Please enlighten us dumb folk.
It is just biology. Men have 10 times the amount of testosterone that normal women have. Now you want to get rid of that testosterone? O.K., but then it is going to take a couple of years for that to equilibrate. And men still have a larger frame with a larger cardiac output, a larger lung capacity
Yes, a larger frame, but trans women athletes have the same hemoglobin (supplying oxygen to the muscles) levels as their cisgender counterparts. So they end up powering their larger frame with a smaller engine. This was the basis of Harper's finding that--among distance runners--a B male runner with be a B trans women runner.
Hormone parameters not strict enough. Lower T levels and a longer time period are required to mitigate the effect of male puberty. (And imo--and perhaps not a popular one-- adult trans women athletes should have undergone sexual reassignment surgery.)
That makes zero sense. Reassignment surgery is cosmetic as far as athletic performance is concerned. The mental well being and bodily autonomy of the trans individual are the only relevant concerns for surgery.
Yes, I agree. From a purely athletic performance point of view it makes no sense. Just my opinion.
Rather than starting at a default of inclusion (women's categorry is a closed category so is by definition not inclusive) the onus is on trans activsts to prove that transwomen have no advantage in order to be included.
That's not how statistical analysis works. You cannot "prove" there is no difference between two groups of people. That's impossible by definition. (If a null hypothesis was not rejected, that "proves" nothing.)
That's why CAS, US federal courts, and all the other courts say you need to prove there is a difference in order to justify exclusion.
You're being disingenous in alleging that there's unanimity amongst the "CAS, US federal courts and al lthe other courts" in the world on the issue of whether males can be excluded from female sports because of their sex. Actually, the various court opinions contradict one another.
Even within the same judicial system, there is no unanmity from one case to the next (as the marked differences in the reasoning and language used by the CAS in the Chand and Semenya cases shows).
Your contention that "you need to prove there is a difference" between females and the particular kinds of males you think belong in the female category in order to "justify exclusion" of those males rests on your belief that the female category always has been and must always be open to at least some males - namely males with certain DSDs and males who claim to have opposite-sex gender identities, so long as said males meet certain conditions that you and other mostly male people have decided on.
Your contention is also based on your view that the onus is on people who believe in female-only sports to prove why exclusion is justified in the case of each and every individual male, or groups of males, who want to get into the female category. Because you don't think that female people as a sex class should be allowed to say no to and exclude all males across the board from female sports simply because they are male.
Whereas my view is that the onus is on advocates of male inclusion/intrusion in the female category like you to prove why shoehorning some males into female sports is justified and fair. Because I believe that female people as a sex class should be allowed to say no to and exclude all males across the board from femael sports simply because they are male.
In the past, many of the mostly male policymakers and judges who've been the ones to decide who gets to compete in the female category of sports have held the same position as you, or they've made decisions siding with it. But I'm not sure that's going to continue to be the case in the future.
But bring on the court cases. Advocates of a female-only category are armed with good arguments and evidence for our side in ways we've never been before - and we'd like to get a fair hearing in the courts, finally.
You're being disingenous in alleging that there's unanimity amongst the "CAS, US federal courts and al lthe other courts" in the world on the issue of whether males can be excluded from female sports because of their sex. Actually, the various court opinions contradict one another.
Even within the same judicial system, there is no unanmity from one case to the next (as the marked differences in the reasoning and language used by the CAS in the Chand and Semenya cases shows).
CAS employed the exact same reasoning in both Chand case and Semenya case. They reached different conclusions because they had different cases at hand.
Either you didn't read the actual decisions, or you don't know how to read legal documents.
You're being disingenous in alleging that there's unanimity amongst the "CAS, US federal courts and al lthe other courts" in the world on the issue of whether males can be excluded from female sports because of their sex. Actually, the various court opinions contradict one another.
Even within the same judicial system, there is no unanmity from one case to the next (as the marked differences in the reasoning and language used by the CAS in the Chand and Semenya cases shows).
CAS employed the exact same reasoning in both Chand case and Semenya case. They reached different conclusions because they had different cases at hand.
Either you didn't read the actual decisions, or you don't know how to read legal documents.
Its core capability is write-only, not so much to read critically, not even its own writings.
I merely responded to the poster’s claims that Richards kept her transition a secret for a period of time and that she had played professionally as a male. I’ve never read that she lied to play in a WTA event and she didn’t play on the men’s tour.
You seem to be arguing against yourself by building up Richards’ ability as a guy. If you’re making the case that men have an advantage over women after transitioning, Richards not being much as a male player would strengthen your position.
There aren’t any studies, but I believe there could be 100s of male players that even after testosterone suppression, could dominate women’s tennis, but not a single one has shown up. Some of them probably sleep in their cars when traveling, but even though sweeping the majors would earn $10M, faking a transition is a bridge too far.
The reason Richards didn't dominate in women's tennis is that Richards started playing tennis in the female division in Richards' 40s, when Richards was well past Richards' athletics prime.
Richards has since said that if Richards had played women's tennis 20 years earlier when Richards was of prime age, Richards would have absolutely dominated in women's professional tennis. Richards has said that if Richards "transitioned" at around age 20 and played women's tennis starting from the time Richards was 21, then Richards most certainly would have beaten the pants off all the top female players in the world in every single match and swept every single women's Grand Slam title each year that Richards remained on the women's pro tour.
This post was edited 1 minute after it was posted.
They are women, not men, for any purpose that matters (your personal opinion not being one of them), and they are not claiming “they are similar enough to women”, rather they and everyone else understands that trans women are different from cis women.
Women? In what way? Please enlighten us dumb folk.
Allow me to simply agree with your self-evaluation of your mental acumen.
The reason Richards didn't dominate in women's tennis is that Richards started playing tennis in the female division in Richards' 40s, when Richards was well past Richards' athletics prime.
Ouch, so much contortive noun expenditure just to avoid giving someone basic human dignity.
There is a simpler way to say 'trans women': men. And men who dress up like women are still men. That's like calling a train an iron horse, but then actually insisting that the train is a horse.
Actually, the burden of proof should be on the men (transwomen) who claim they are similar enough to women that they should be allowed in women's sports.
Tell us how that can be "proved."
What tests can be conducted on what groups of people, and what results would "prove" that point?
There's no good way to do a performance test where the desired outcome of the participant is to is to under perform. If you're only allowed to race in the women's field if you run a mile slower than 5:00 then you just sandbag the test and blast the race.
I agree that the burden of proof that there is no retained advantage should be on the biological men seeking to compete in the women's field. An outcome based test like running or cycling is open to intentional misrepresentation, and a non-volitional parameter based test like blood tests or muscle biopsy does not capture the many sexually dimorphic variables that affect performance outcomes.
The fundamental issue is that transitioning to a different gender can be a choice. Some people surely truly feel as though their gender doesn't match their body. Some can be bad actors faking it for notoriety, plaudits, or victories. How do you possibly determine between the two, and the gray area in between?
Since there is no possible objective way to separate out the bad actors and no objective way to disprove retained advantage then the reasonable solution is to compete as your biological sex. Competing in sport as your stated gender is not an unalienable or fundamental right.
The reason Richards didn't dominate in women's tennis is that Richards started playing tennis in the female division in Richards' 40s, when Richards was well past Richards' athletics prime.
Ouch, so much contortive noun expenditure just to avoid giving someone basic human dignity.
Stating something one knows to be false is lying. Lying is not dignified.
I agree that the burden of proof that there is no retained advantage should be on the biological men seeking to compete in the women's field. An outcome based test like running or cycling is open to intentional misrepresentation, and a non-volitional parameter based test like blood tests or muscle biopsy does not capture the many sexually dimorphic variables that affect performance outcomes.
The fundamental issue is that transitioning to a different gender can be a choice. Some people surely truly feel as though their gender doesn't match their body. Some can be bad actors faking it for notoriety, plaudits, or victories. How do you possibly determine between the two, and the gray area in between?
There is no need to determine intent, nor does it make sense for a policy to make potential dishonesty the default assumption.
There is quantifiable unfairness in a policy only if transwomen winning medals as a fraction of all transwomen significantly exceeds the corresponding fraction for cis women. That currently is not happening in any sport, certainly not in T&F, rather everyone on both sides of the debate agrees that WA/FINA rules make it practically impossible for any trans (or for that matter DSD) women to be competitive.
So the current WA/FINA policy is indeed effectively a default exclude without a credible threat (yet).
I merely responded to the poster’s claims that Richards kept her transition a secret for a period of time and that she had played professionally as a male. I’ve never read that she lied to play in a WTA event and she didn’t play on the men’s tour.
You seem to be arguing against yourself by building up Richards’ ability as a guy. If you’re making the case that men have an advantage over women after transitioning, Richards not being much as a male player would strengthen your position.
There aren’t any studies, but I believe there could be 100s of male players that even after testosterone suppression, could dominate women’s tennis, but not a single one has shown up. Some of them probably sleep in their cars when traveling, but even though sweeping the majors would earn $10M, faking a transition is a bridge too far.
Don't know why you're being disingenuous about Richards; when she competed as a man in the 1950s (reaching the early rounds of the US Open), the major tennis tournaments were only open to amateurs. That was the highest level then.
She did keep her transition secret because that's what all trans people were expected to do in those days, as a condition of transitioning. The ideal was to cut off everyone you knew, start over somewhere else, and never mention your past to anyone (and lie if confronted). Amazingly, this "deep stealth" protocol didn't exactly do wonders for trans people's social support networks and mental health.
Admittedly having a distinctive style and a high level of ability in a sport one played before transition, and then picking it up again after transition, was probably not the most reliable way to go about this, and Richards may well have known this going in.
As for the last part, that's simple to explain: trans athletes transition because they're transgender, not to have an advantage in sports (whether they obtain one is a separate question). Dysphoria sucks enough that, even if the rule were only a year on hormones, people who aren't genuinely transgender would probably back off before then. How many cis people here would transition and live as the other sex for the rest of their life for $10M?
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