Explain to me exactly how it applies "in reverse"?
Palestinian Arabs have subjected to a continual process of colonial massacres, rape, terror, and displacement dating to at least the 1930s. And this after having lived peaceably alongside Arab Jews for a couple of centuries.
Not very long ago, the notion that Israel was a necessarily violent colonial project was relatively uncontroversial. You only need to spend a little time reviewing the language of Israel's founders to understand this. Start with Ben Gurion.
And Israel's violent colonialism was uncontroversial at the time because it was piggybacked on British colonialism, then protected by American neo-colonialism during the Cold War.
All of the egregious Israeli lies about Palestinians having provoked their own displacement are relatively recent concoctions, born out of necessity to sell their project to an American and European public grown critical of 20C colonialism. Only the willfully ignorant are, in 2026, still repeating its propaganda.
I said both sides have used classic terror tactics, but this is where the similarities end. One side is a modern, armed-to-the-teeth, regional power, and the other is a lightly equipped urban guerilla insurgency fighting simply to remain in place. And where it is not armed at all (i.e. the WB) it is having its land openly stolen as we speak.
Explain to me how the threat posed to Israeli Jews by Palestinians justifies what has been and what continues to be done to them as a people.