wazzu1452 wrote:
Reasonable doubt is supposed to be the standard. How is there not, at the very least, reasonable doubt about whether Floyd died from being restrained as opposed to overdosing?
I posted this article and explanation on another thread. I thought I saw your post on this thread but seeing as you asked I figured I would post it again
First I will give you some things that I knew before reading the article, as I have some knowledge base in the area
1) You cannot say that someone it has taken a lethal Dose of opiates like fentanyl based just on their blood level. The amount of tolerance that can develop through use over time is staggering
2) fentanyl fatalities are almost always the result of respiratory depression
3) Methamphetamine counteracts respiratory depression
4) Respiratory depression is normally preceded by sedation to unconsciousness. GF’s behavior prior to the knee to the neck is inconsistent with what one would expect prior to unconsciousness and death due to respiratory depression
The article noted most of those points. It also noted that
1) There are bio markers of opiate dependence, and GF’s blood indicated that he had a significant dependence. Tolerance goes with dependence
2) it reminded me that post-Mortem shifts complicate the interpretation of blood levels
It appeared that 6 of 7 experts said homicide, and one said they didn’t have enough evidence to come to a conclusion.
I am not particularly knowledgeable with regards to the law so I can’t really speak to manslaughter versus homicide for this case, but certainly anyone claiming that the toxicology reports provides conclusive evidence that fentanyl killed GF should reassess how they process data.
https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.washingtonpost.com/health/george-floyd-fentanyl/2021/03/10/c3d4f328-76ec-11eb-9537-496158cc5fd9_story.html%3foutputType=amp