Doesn't this argument apply equally the other way around? Someone who is being knelt on by police might have died of a drug overdose, but someone who has taken drugs might have died as a result of being knelt on by police.
I think you may have been disingenuous. Medical examiner Baker said that Floyd's toxicology report showed he had a "fatal level of fentanyl under normal circumstances" and that "if he were found dead at home alone and no other apparent causes, this could be acceptable to call an OD."
An independent autopsy found his death was a "homicide caused by asphyxia due to neck and back compression that led to a lack of blood flow to the brain."
I'm not sure if these are the same report/autopsy, in which case it seems they acknowledged drugs but did not conclude they killed him. Otherwise it seems there are differing reports, in which case how do we know who and what we should believe?
"The author [Armstronglivs] wants to immediately turn attention away from the drug overdose issue and back to an issue he is comfortable with; Chauvin’s knee restraint."
"The author [Muldoon] wants to immediately turn attention away from the knee restraint issue and back to an issue he is comfortable with; the drug overdose."
How can we hope to find out the cause of death and whether the police response was appropriate?
Won't prosecutors and defenders each find experts to argue it was the knee/drugs that killed him and the knee restraints was unjustified/justified? How do we know which expert to believe if differing claims are presented?
Are there cases where someone was not harmed after having a knee on their neck for 8 minutes? Unless there are examples of the police using this restraint for so long against compliant suspects, I can't see how they can justify Chauvin's actions.