So, for all the folks saying the cyclist was breaking the law, wouldn't the law-abiding thing for the driver to have done was to call the police and report the cyclist?
The pro-driver argument fails when you replace car with knife. (Can't say gun because you get the stand your ground folks saying it would be OK to have shot the cyclist out of fear of safety). So, if a cyclist is being inconsiderate and possibly riding illegally by riding in the middle of the road, can you pull over, stab the cyclist and then continue driving, leaving the cyclist stabbed on the side of the road?
What if the cyclist had been biking through a poor neighborhood and the driver was a black man with an arrest history and the black driver with the criminal past hit the cyclist, sped off and was then pulled over by a police officer. Has the driver done something that gives the police officer the right to approach the vehicle with a gun drawn and is the officer correct in stating that he is in fear of the driver because of the driver's recent hit and run, and if the officer shoots the driver, will the just prior hit and run be used in the officer's defense? If the cyclist was truly at fault, the driver would never have been pulled over and approached by the police officer and the driver's prior criminal history would've be relevant and the officer wouldn't be in fear. But the fact is, people defending the driver identify with the driver, but change the driver to someone they don't identify with and in a scenario where an officer shoots the driver, the same people defending the driver in this Natchez Trace example now defend the police officer who shoots the driver - bottom line: it's ok to hurt those in the minority: non-motorist, the poor, POC will never be "far enough to the right of the road"; the homogenous majority will always have the right away.