Since this is the best place for self-appointed economics experts, I figured it'd be a good place to ask.
Ok, so a big cause of the recession we're currently fighting to get out of was the housing "bubble." Am I correct in defining a "bubble" as a kind of mass overvaluation of a good, and the "popping" of the bubble being that mass overvaluation ending for whatever reason, with a resultant plummeting of prices?
If so, I'm confused that I continue to hear people talking about the need for the housing market to "recover." If the housing market from, I dunno, say 2000-2007 was marked by a systematic overvaluation of housing, why would house prices "recover" to that previous high value?
What I'm saying is, let's say I purchased a house for 100,000 (for the sake of simplicity) in 2002, and for 5 years, it had a "appreciated" on average of 20% a year due to the bubble, and so was valued at about $250,000 after compounding. However, again, for the sake of argument, let's say that if there was no bubble, my house would have appreciated by 5% in actual value, and so really only "should" have been worth about $128,000. Now the housing bubble pops and the value of my house drops to $120,000. When people talk about housing prices "recovering" are they talking about houses reaching their "actual" worth (in my very simplified example here, another 8,000, or about 5% more than my home is now valued in the post-bubble world) or talking about homes reaching their previous (overvalued) high values?
It seems to me that if the housing market bubble is now popped, prices shouldn't reach their previous highs for another 20-30 years- and they SHOULDN'T be regaining a lot of that "bubble-induced" value, since by definition a bubble situation overvalues a good.
I was thinking of it this way. We've all heard the story of tulips in the Netherlands, and how they become such a ridiculous bubble that people were mortgaging their homes to buy tulip futures because outrageous fortunes were made during the bubble's peak. When the market for tulips collapsed, then, prices obviously plummeted and all kinds of terrible things happened economically. Were there Dutch people fretting, several years later, when they were doing better though not out of the recession entirely, that while the economy was improving, "tulip prices still haven't reached their previous highs?" Again, isn't the whole point of a "bubble market" that the prices are too high relative to the actual value of the good, and that once the bubble pops, those highs aren't going to be reached again?
Thanks in advance, letsrun.