fethullah gulen rupp wrote:
since we're on the topic does anyone have any insight as to why they determined this rule should only apply to 400 through mile? i read the official rule and explanation but all they say is that the middle distance events were where the performances of intersex athletes were the best (the "semenya rule" i guess). but how is it not an advantage to have higher levels of testosterone in literally any other event or athletics in general?
i am asking out of curiosity. i support non-conforming gender identities and i don't wanna hear any political takes. in sport we have to be scientific or at least data-driven about it so those are the takes i want to hear.
Question - how is it not an advantage to have higher levels of testosterone in literally any other event or athletics in general?
The simple answer is yes, it is.
The more complex answer is that a few years ago when the ruling was made by the court, all of the intersex runners were only running events from 400 - 1 mile. So the court decided to only ban intersex athletes in those events. This was NOT a decision made by World Athletics all by itself, it was a decision pushed onto World Athletics by the court system.
If intersex athletes start winning Olympic and World Championship medals at events outside of 400 - 1 mile, I suspect World Athletics will have to go back to court and try to get permission to change the current rules.